Normalizing correlation coefficients for sequences of unequal length without unnecessary zero padding
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I have 2 questions:
1. Can some one explain why normalization{unbiased} of cross-corelation coefficents is carried out? I want to understand this at an intuitive level and not a mathematical one.
2. I have written my own code to carry out cross corelation between 2 sequences. The sequences are of unequal length. The code has been written in such a way that only the longer sequence has to be zero padded and that to only to the length of the smaller sequence-1.
How am I supposed to carry out normalization in this case?
Kindly help me figure this out.
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Rohan
il 17 Nov 2012
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Rohan
il 17 Nov 2012
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Greg Heath
il 18 Nov 2012
If I scale to get a peak of 1 for autocorrelation, I get a warm fuzzy feeling when I get 0.76 for crosscorrelation at zero lag because I think I know how similar the functions are.
If I don't scale to get a peak of 1 for autocorrelation, I have to look at both autocorrelation curves to try to interpret the crosscorrelation curve.
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