How can I make 1 by length x array of random numbers from -pi to pi ??
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How can I make 1 by length x array of random numbers from -pi to pi ??
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M.MUSBA Elhadid
il 31 Ott 2021
Modificato: M.MUSBA Elhadid
il 31 Ott 2021
0 voti
x = ones(1,100); a = [rand(1,length(x))-0.5]+linspace(-pi+0.5,pi-0.5,length(x));
2 Commenti
John D'Errico
il 1 Nov 2021
Modificato: John D'Errico
il 1 Nov 2021
I'm sorry, but do you realize this solution does not generate uniformly distributed random numbers? Worse, it requires far more effort than the true solution.
Does it work? Is it even remotely close? Perhaps they only way to prove it is to do a large simulation.
a = zeros(1000,100);
for i = 1:1000
x = ones(1,100); a(i,:) = [rand(1,length(x))-0.5]+linspace(-pi+0.5,pi-0.5,length(x));
end
hist(a(:),1000)
Does that look even remotely uniformly distributed? See the answer by Jan for a far better solution. And even worse, you are trying to do what is surely someone's homework assignment. We do not do homework assignments for students on this site.
M.MUSBA Elhadid
il 1 Nov 2021
thank you for the advice. I will check next times.
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